You say that the Starks derived power from the fact that they enforced justice in an almost legalist manner (as much as a feudal society can be legalist). But you also say that there’s not much difference between Northern and Southron politics. Yet Ned’s application of the Stark style of justice and ruling doesn’t jive with the Southron court. What gives? How is Northern politics simultaneously accepting of Stark judicial authority yet also close to Southron politics?

Not that different on the specific modality of Northern lords being just as focused on scheming for power as their Southron counterparts. After all, this question emerged from the question of why Ned fails as Hand of the King and whether that emerged from a qualitatively different form of Northern politics.

Northern judicial authority doesn’t really have relevance for Ned’s tenture as Hand. 

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