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Why did Maegor give Harrenhal but not all its lands to House Towers?

stevenattewell Uncategorized April 19, 2017 1 Minute

Probably kept some for himself because he needed the money or something.

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Published by stevenattewell

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Published April 19, 2017

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Previous Post Steven, I’m not sure you’ve written on this before… what does an extended period of peace do to the Westerosi social order? How does the nobility dispose of younger sons when they can’t inherit, there’s no standing army for them to join, no war to kill them off, can’t conquer new lands, and there’s prejudice against working at a trade? My understanding is that historically IRL, this state could cause serious problems. Do the Church and the Citadel just get a ton more people sent to them?

Next Post What do you think is the difference between a sept and a septry given that the latter is, IIRC, only used in TWOIAF?

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