It’s a good point, GRRM did introduce a wrinkle by splitting Henry VIII between Maegor who did the beheaded wives thing and Aegon IV, who just had mistresses. If I had to guess, she was executed for suborning the loyalty of one of the Kingsguard, which Aegon no doubt construed as a plot against his life.
Did Aegon IV have anything resembling a shred of legal justification for the treatment he meted out to poor Bethany Bracken ? After all she wasn’t officially the Queen, & so her affairs shouldn’t count as grand treason unlike the queen’s. Seeing as how Westeros doesn’t even have a formal position of Royal concubine, how could she even be accused of having violated any rules or terms of contract?
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