I asked about a vassal house changing paramouncies: Thanks for the response, completely missed the whole Tytos affair. So, from what I understand, such a transfer is justified only by an overlord failing in his feudal obligation to his vassal, thus making it “legal” and not by the vassal getting a better offer from a neighboring house? Is this then applicable on all overlord/vassal relationships in Westeros (say House Osgrey joining House Crane after TSS incedent *bad example)? – BryndenBloodEye

Yeah, it would have to be a significant situation, because a free market in vassalage would be really bad for the powers that be, so you’re going to have very strong social/cultural prohibitions against it. 

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