Per John VI you question the story of Bael the Bard by questioning the dates on the Starks as Lords. I think you’re over-reading the text. The Starks are certainly Kings in the North, but they’re also Lords of Winterfell, and both titles are contextually accurate. She merely chose to go with the style of ‘Lord’ instead of ‘King’ for the story

I don’t think the title Lord of Winterfell existed before the Conquest. Why would it?

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